In a very interesting post, Alexander Pruss (Baylor, Philosophy) attacks what he calls "liberal theology," but what he means by that term is some form of theological fallibilism. He writes:
The liberal theologian does not believe that any part of the Sources is infallible in matters of faith or morals,
and he has explained his use of "Sources" as follows:
Consider a revealed religion, say Christianity. I will use "the Sources" for the locus or loci where revelation is believed to be discursively embodied. In the case of Catholic Christianity, the Sources are Scripture and Tradition, in the case of Protestant Christianity, the Sources might be just Scripture.
Pruss's overall goal: To argue that liberal theology, so understood, "is untenable." I'm interested in his first conclusion. Here he argues that, because she takes no part of the Sources to be infallible, the liberal theologian has to make her decision about what from the Sources to accept "by the light of her reason." Thus, Pruss concludes:
The liberal theologian, to be consistent, must have a high view of reason.
But this won't sit well with them, according to Pruss, who writes:
I suspect that some liberal theologians, in the thrall of postmodern thought, do not have a high view of reason.
I reply (this is a comment I left on Pruss's post, but since the issue might be of interest to GOTT readers -- or whatever readers GOTT may have left! -- I thought I'd post it here as well):
Very interesting post! I think I’m a liberal theologian, by your present construal, but I
wonder about this part: "The liberal theologian does not believe that any
part of the Sources is infallible in matters of faith or morals."
I believe the Sources you list are all fallible. But might there be parts of them that are
infallible? For all I know, and for all
I firmly believe, yes. I guess there’s
an issue of possible “neg-raising” in your sentence I’ve italicized above. But this much is true: there is no part of
them, at least as I seem to have access to them as Sources, of which I have the
positive belief that it is infallible.
Anyway, supposing we have a good enough grip on what the
liberal is (on your present construal), I’m most interested in your first
conclusion. I’m not sure what exactly
you mean by a “high view of reason” -- though to the extent that I think I have
a feel for your meaning here, I don’t think I have such a view. So I have an interest in resisting your
conclusion. And I don’t think it
follows, but maybe what will result in pursuing the issue would be a better
understanding of what “reason” is supposed to be here, and what a “high” view
of it would be.
This analogy, though messy and imperfect, may help. Consider the several Senses. Suppose they operate by (perhaps among
other functions) each presenting propositional information to the subject
whose senses they are. The subject thinks
they are extremely reliable sources of information. Are any of them infallible? Well, that seems very implausible to her. She uses her Reason to
integrate the information she receives from these sources, together with some
other sources. Sometimes, for example,
there is very strong reason, coming from Touch, to believe something, where
Vision is presenting (perhaps in a very weak form) information in conflict with
that. But the subject has learned that
(or at least has taken herself to have learned that), generally reliable as it
is, there are certain circumstances in which Vision will present her with false
information. She thinks this because, on
the picture of the world she has used her Reason to develop, working with
information from all the Senses, together with other Sources, Vision tends to
glitch up a bit under the circumstances in question.
Is our subject operating with a "high view of Reason"?
Of course, that depends on what’s meant by that phrase, but maybe
the way to go is to pretend I understand that, and just present the
counter-argument. So here goes:
Not necessarily. Maybe she recognizes that her Reason is highly fallible -- perhaps more
fallible than Vision. Well, then, why does she allow Reason to “trump” Vision
here? Well, in a way, this is a case of
Touch trumping Vision, but Reason is operating. It seems our subject can be reasonable in her procedure here, despite
the views I’ve just ascribed to her. She
could be thinking along these lines: Vision is extremely reliable, but is very limited in what information it
presents, and is one source among many. Some integrating and adjudicating is called for. That’s one of Reason’s functions. Reason is so highly fallible in part because
it’s often called on to settle very tough issues. Some of these are so tough because they are
matters about which there is information from different sources pointing in different directions. And some are tough because there isn’t
information pointing very solidly in any direction. One strategy for dealing with the latter type
of tough issue is to be very conservative, and have no views about such
matters. But the subject is willing to
risk substantial chances of error in order to have a more complete view of the
world. (I'm assuming she advocates a moderate, and not a completely non-conservative stance here, trying to balance comprehensiveness with accuracy.) She keeps her fallibility on such
matters firmly in mind, holds her views quite loosely, and is very open to
change on such matters, but does not remain non-committal. That all sounds pretty reasonable to me.
But in any case, Reason is needed here. Even the policy of integrating and
adjudicating information from among the several sources by clinging to the
postulate that Vision is Infallible would be an instance of using Reason to
reach that decision. Based on her
experience, though, this would just seem to the subject to be an unreasonable
use of Reason. Why suppose Vision is
infallible? And why suppose it’s right
in this instance? Our subject knows people well who at least profess to operate
under the assumption that Vision is infallible. In fact, she’s considered adopting the assumption of several people very
close to her according to which both Vision and Hearing are infallible. But when she tried provisionally adopting
that assumption, it seemed to result in what seemed a very unlikely
picture. It could be done, she thought
-- it wouldn’t be impossible. But it
meant ending up with judgments that seemed very implausible. For instance, there are matters which don’t
seem to be central to what Vision and Hearing seem designed to deal with. Still, Vision and Hearing do present some
information about them. And if they are
infallible, well then, you can take what they say to the bank, even on such
matters. But there are other sources
that really seem aimed centrally at just such matters, and are presenting
information contrary to what Vision and Hearing present, and the information these
other sources present fits in extremely well with the subject’s whole picture,
built up from her many sources, including the matters that Vision and Hearing
seem to be centrally concerned with. So,
our subject (reasonably, it seems, at least to me) adopts a different method,
which involves trusting Vision and Hearing to a great degree, especially on
certain matters under certain circumstances, but doesn’t hold either to be
infallible.
Is she being inconsistent? Even unreasonable? I can’t see
that. As she would pointedly ask: Why
think that Vision and Hearing are infallible? If anything, given the circumstances described in the above paragraph,
that would seem the more unreasonable alternative. (Of course, it’s possible that there are
relevant disanalogies between the situation described above and what you think,
or what may actually be, the case concerning the information given to us by
your Sources. But then consider this
just as the presentation of a *possible* scenario under which one can use
highly fallible Reason in rejecting some information from a very reliable
source without betraying a “high view of Reason” and w/o being
unreasonable.)
Is she betraying a “high view of Reason”? Well, like I said, this all seems consistent
with her thinking that Reason is highly fallible, and more fallible than
Vision. Well, I guess what I’m thinking
there is that it’s generally more fallible than Vision. I guess she is thinking that in this
instance, she’s more likely to arrive at a true view about the matter in
question by going with the information that Touch is presenting than with
trusting Vision. And Reason is involved
in making this determination. But is
this holding a “high view of Reason”? I
wouldn’t have thought so. Her
alternative would be to go with what Vision is saying and rejecting Touch’s
information, which would be using Reason to reject Touch. Or she could believe nothing. Or she could believe both things, which may
be flatly inconsistent, or, depending on how we are imagining the case, just in
sharp tension with one another. So, this
seems a reasonable defense for her to give to the charge that she’s adopting a
“high view of Reason”: “Look, what to do in these especially tricky situations
is a very tough call. Reason has figured
out that the best way to integrate the information I’m getting here is to go
with Touch on this one. Yes, Reason is
highly fallible. It could very well be
wrong here. I have no high view of
Reason. But what would you have me do
instead, and why would that be so much better?”
Well, stepping out of the whole analogy to comment: One
thing that seems to be going on is that I seem to be construing Reason a bit
differently from you. For you, it seems
to be another source at the same level as the various other sources. But I’m seeing it as at least in part performing a
higher-level, “executive” function. It
is what puts together information from various other sources. It “trumps” the various sources in certain
cases, not because it’s so “high” in terms of its reliability, but because of
the different role it plays. That’s its
job. It integrates & adjudicates
information coming from various other sources. That’s always a dicey game to play. But it has to be played. Something has to make these calls – even when the call it makes is:
“I’ll just go with whatever Source S598 tells me.” You may play that game by designating some
sources as infallible, but it’s far from clear that that’s the best way to go,
and even further from clear that it’s the only reasonable way to go. Why Source S598? To this, “Well, some source had better be
infallible, or we’re in trouble!” doesn’t seem very convincing. (I’m not assuming that’s how you would
answer. I’m mentioning this answer b/c it
seems to be what’s driving at least many people who buy into infallible sources.) Maybe we just are in trouble – if by that we
just mean: have to put up with a little uncertainty.
However we construe “Reason,” this point remains: We do have
to integrate information from various sources, including the Sources you
mention. Are you thinking that, on the
pain of inconsistency, we have to designate some source or sources of
information as Infallible in this integration & processing stage, or else
we are betraying a “high view” of our own ability to integrate & process information? B/c I’m really not seeing that.
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